ECE662: Statistical Pattern Recognition and Decision Making Processes

Spring 2008, Prof. Boutin

Slecture

Collectively created by the students in the class


Lecture 19 Lecture notes

Jump to: Outline| 1| 2| 3| 4| 5| 6| 7| 8| 9| 10| 11| 12| 13| 14| 15| 16| 17| 18| 19| 20| 21| 22| 23| 24| 25| 26| 27| 28



We have seen Nearest Neighbor (NN) error rate as the number of samples approaches infinity is

$ P=\int(1-\sum_{i=1}^c P^2(w_i|\vec{x}))p(\vec{x})d\vec{x} $

We would like to be able to answer two questions:

1) How good is that in terms of error rate?

2) How does it compare to Bayes, the best error rate we can achieve?

Recall error rate is $ P(e)=\int P(e|\vec{x})p(\vec{x})d\vec{x} $. For all x, Bayes rule yields minimum possible $ P(e|\vec{x})=:P^*(e|\vec{x}) $

Thus, we get the minimum $ P(e)=:P^*=\int P^*(e|\vec{x})p(\vec{x})d\vec{x} $

Claim 1: If $ P^* $ is low, then $ P\approx 2P^* $ (Assumes $ \infty $ number of samples.)

Justification: $ P^*(e|\vec{x})=1-P(w_{max}|\vec{x}) $, where $ w_{max} $ is such that $ P(w_{max}|\vec{x})\geq P(w_j|\vec{x}),\forall j $

So, $ P^* $ low => $ p^*(e|\vec{x}) $ is low for almost every x.

=> $ P(w_{max}|\vec{x}) $ is close to 1 for almost every x.

We have $ P=\int(1-\sum_{i=1}^cP^2(w_i|\vec{x}))p(\vec{x})d\vec{x} $ and for almost every x, $ 1-\sum_{i=1}^cP^2(w_i|\vec{x})\approx 1-P^2(w_{max}|\vec{x})\approx 2(1-P(w_{max}|\vec{x})) $, by Taylor expansion

$ =2(P^*(e|\vec{x}) $

=> $ P\approx\int 2P^*(e|\vec{x})p(\vec{x})d\vec{x}=2P^* $

Claim 2: $ P^*\leq P\leq (2-\frac{c}{c-1}P^*)P^* $

$ P^*\leq P $ obvious can't beat Bayes. In fact, tight!

for RHS inequality $ P=\int(1-\sum_{i=1}^cP^2(w_i|\vec{x}))p(\vec{x})d\vec{x} $

Find the lower bound for this $ \sum_{i=1}^cP^2(w_i|\vec{x}) $

Write $ \sum_{i=1}^cP^2(w_i|\vec{x})=P^2(w_m|\vec{x})+\sum_{i\neq m}P^2(w_i|\vec{x}) $

Minimize this $ \sum_{i\neq m}P^2(w_i|\vec{x}) $

under the constraint $ \sum_{i\neq m}P(w_i|\vec{x})=1-P(w_m|\vec{x})=P^*(e|\vec{x}) $

min is attained when

$ P(w_i|\vec{x})=\frac{P^*(e|\vec{x})}{c-1},\forall i $

So we have

$ \sum_{i=1}^cP^2(w_i|\vec{x})\geq (1-P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2 +(c-1)(\frac {P^*(e|\vec{x})}{c-1})^2 $

$ =(1-P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2 +\frac{(P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2}{c-1} $

$ =1-2P^*(e|\vec{x})+(P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2 +\frac{(P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2}{c-1} $

$ =1-2P^*(e|\vec{x})+\frac{c}{c-1}(P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2 $

Inside the $ \int $

$ 1-\sum_{i=1}^cP^2(w_i|\vec{x}))p(\vec{x})\leq 1-(1-2P^*(e|\vec{x})+\frac{c}{c-1}(P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2) $

$ =2P^*(e|\vec{x})-\frac{c}{c-1}(P^*(e|\vec{x}))^2 $

To get better bound, observe

$ Var(P^*(e|\vec{x})\geq 0 $

$ => \int(p^*(e|\vec x)-p^*)^2p(\vec x)dx\geq 0 $

$ => \int ({p}^{*2}(e|\vec x)-2p*p*(e|\vec x)+{p}^{*2} p(\vec x)dx $

$ => \int {p}^{*2}(e|\vec x)p(x) dx - 2p* \int p*(e| \vec x)p(\vec x)dx + {p}^{*2} \int p(\vec x)dx) \geq 0 $

(where, $ \int p*(e|\vec x)p(\vec x)dx $ should be changed as $ \int p*(e|\vec x)p(\vec x)dx = p* $ )

$ \int {p}^{*2}(e|\vec x)p(\vec x) dx \geq {p}^{*2} $

(This is equal only if variance = 0)

so, $ p\leq \int (2p^*(e| \vec x)- \frac{c}{c-1} {p}^{*2}(e|\vec{x}) ) p(\vec x)dx $

$ = 2 \int p* (e|vec x)p(\vec x) dx - \frac{c}{c-1} \int {p}^{*2}(e|\vec x)p(\vec x) dx $

$ \leq 2p* - \frac {c}{c-1} {p}^{*2} $

$ = (2- \frac{c}{c-1} p* ) p^* $

$ c=2, p^* \leq p \leq p^* (2-sp^*) $

Park213 OldKiwi.jpg

Lec19 fish OldKiwi.PNG Figure 1


Previous: Lecture 18 Next: Lecture 20

Back to ECE662 Spring 2008 Prof. Boutin

Alumni Liaison

Correspondence Chess Grandmaster and Purdue Alumni

Prof. Dan Fleetwood