Revision as of 10:55, 21 September 2008 by Dimberti (Talk)

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Got 1 and 2 in class. I was thinking about number 3, and got into this line of thinking. We don't know that the metric is surjective to $ \mathbf{R} $, so say the metric mapped to $ \mathbf{Q} $. Then certainly it could be the case that there was even a point in $ X $, let alone $ K $, where $ d(x,k) \inf bla $. Dimberti 15:55, 21 September 2008 (UTC)

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