Since all the $ f_{n} $ are AC, there exists $ f_{n}^{'} $ such that $ f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dt $ and $ f_{n}^{'} $ are nonnegative almost everywhere.
Let $ g_{n}(x)= \sum_{k=1}^{n}f_{k}(x)=\sum_{1}^{n}\int_{0}^{x}f_{k}^{'}(t)dt=\int_{0}^{x}\sum_{k=0}^{n} $
