Revision as of 18:21, 10 November 2008 by Gutierjm (Talk)

(diff) ← Older revision | Latest revision (diff) | Newer revision → (diff)

So where

$ \hat n_{ML} = \text{max}_n ( \binom{n}{1000000} p^{1000000} (1-p)^{n-1000000} ) $


we can express x! as a gamma function but the derivative is kind of a mess and maybe it can get canceled out by the making the derivative = 0? If you were to take the derivative of the the rest of the function you would find

$ {1000000}p^{999999} * -{(n-1000000)} *(1-p)^{n-1000001} $ = 0

to get the ML estimate

Alumni Liaison

Ph.D. 2007, working on developing cool imaging technologies for digital cameras, camera phones, and video surveillance cameras.

Buyue Zhang