Since all the $ f_{n} $ are AC, there exists $ f_{n}^{'} $ such that $ f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dt<\math> and <math>f_{n}^{'}<\math> are nonnegative almost everywhere. Let <math>g_{n}(x)= \sigma_{1}^{n}f_{n}(x)<\math>S $
