Revision as of 17:31, 10 November 2008 by Sstreete (Talk)

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If p1 is the probability of an echo for a single pulse when there is no object and p2 is the probability when there is an object, does that mean p2 is the probability of an echo for ONE single pulse when there is an object? Or is p2 a probability independent of p1? Okay after reading this, I think that p1 is an independent probability that we tie into a max-likelihood estimation rule with p2. So if p1 is probability of echo for 1 pulse and no object then it should be low right because echoes occur when there is an object? So is the probability of an echo for 1 pulse and there is an object 1-p1 ? Furthermore is the probability of an echo for n pulses and no object mean p1^n and if there is an object: (1-p1)^n? Can we now relate the two?

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