Revision as of 15:25, 11 July 2008 by Dvtran (Talk)

The case $ \mu(X)=\infty $ the inequality is true.

Suppose $ \mu(X) $ is finite, we have

Given $ p^{'}=\frac{p+r}{2} $,

$ \int_{X}|f|^{r}d\mu \leq \int_{X}|f|^{p^{'}}(\mu(X))^{1-r/p^{'}} \leq \int_{X}|f|^{p^{'}}(\mu(X))^{1-r/p} $ by Holder.

Now,

$ \int_{X}|f|^{p^{'}}(\mu(X) $

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