Alright I know that problem 1 is easy cause you just have to integrate out the y for fx(x) and integrate out the x for fy(y)...BUT integrating out the y is horrible. i know its a uv - integral of vdu...but the original expression stays...so i subtracted it over to the other side and divided by the (1 + 1/(1+x) that remained. Is that the right avenue to go? cause it seems crazy but mathematically I think it works -- Cory
