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Question #20, The integral for a_o, a_n, and b_n all have a term f(x)=0 (conditions are 0 to 2). Does this integral=0 there is no area when I draw the graph? | Question #20, The integral for a_o, a_n, and b_n all have a term f(x)=0 (conditions are 0 to 2). Does this integral=0 there is no area when I draw the graph? | ||
| + | Are we allowed to use Maple of MatLab to graph? Or should we hand-sketch the plots? | ||
[[2010 MA 527 Bell|Back to the MA 527 start page]] | [[2010 MA 527 Bell|Back to the MA 527 start page]] | ||
Revision as of 15:08, 1 November 2010
Homework 10 collaboration area
Are there instructions on how to remotely access MAPEL anywhere? It would be nice to have access to check my work.
Login to software remote at the following link: https://goremote.ics.purdue.edu/Citrix/XenApp/auth/login.aspx You will probably need to install the Citrix software. Once you do and are logged in, select Applications -> Standard Software -> Computational Packages -> Maple 14 and the software will load remotely. Brig --Brericks 10:50, 30 October 2010 (UTC)
Another great resource I've found is: http://www.wolframalpha.com/
Question #14, is f(x) even? I know that pi*exp(-X) is neither odd or even, but when I graph the 2 conditions, they are symmetrical about the origin. To solve the problem, do I split up the integrals like Question #20?
Question #20, The integral for a_o, a_n, and b_n all have a term f(x)=0 (conditions are 0 to 2). Does this integral=0 there is no area when I draw the graph?
Are we allowed to use Maple of MatLab to graph? Or should we hand-sketch the plots?
