(New page: Since <math> f \in L(\mu) </math>, we know that <math> \int_X |f|d\mu < \infty </math>. Let <math>F_{n} \equiv \{|f| > 1/n\}</math>. Then we have <math>\{f \ne 0\} = \cup_{n=1}^\infty F...)
 
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2. Let <math>(X,\mathcal{F},\mu)</math> be a measure space and <math>f \in L(\mu)</math>.  Show that <math>\{f \ne 0\}</math> is <math>\sigma</math>-finite.
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'''[[Solution]]'''
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Since <math> f \in L(\mu) </math>, we know that <math> \int_X |f|d\mu < \infty </math>.  Let <math>F_{n} \equiv \{|f| > 1/n\}</math>.  Then we have  
 
Since <math> f \in L(\mu) </math>, we know that <math> \int_X |f|d\mu < \infty </math>.  Let <math>F_{n} \equiv \{|f| > 1/n\}</math>.  Then we have  
 
<math>\{f \ne 0\} = \cup_{n=1}^\infty F_n.</math>   
 
<math>\{f \ne 0\} = \cup_{n=1}^\infty F_n.</math>   
  
Clearly all of the <math>F_n</math> must have finite measure, else <math>\int_X |f|d\mu</math> would be infinite.  Thus, <math>\{f \ne 0\}</math> is <math>\sigma</math>-finite.
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Clearly all of the <math>F_n</math> must have finite measure, else <math> \int_X |f|d\mu </math> would be infinite.  Thus, <math>\{f \ne 0\}</math> is <math>\sigma</math>-finite.

Revision as of 08:19, 6 July 2009

2. Let $ (X,\mathcal{F},\mu) $ be a measure space and $ f \in L(\mu) $. Show that $ \{f \ne 0\} $ is $ \sigma $-finite.


Solution

Since $ f \in L(\mu) $, we know that $ \int_X |f|d\mu < \infty $. Let $ F_{n} \equiv \{|f| > 1/n\} $. Then we have $ \{f \ne 0\} = \cup_{n=1}^\infty F_n. $

Clearly all of the $ F_n $ must have finite measure, else $ \int_X |f|d\mu $ would be infinite. Thus, $ \{f \ne 0\} $ is $ \sigma $-finite.

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