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Since all the <math>f_{n}</math> are AC, there exists <math>f_{n}^{'}</math> such that <math>f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dt<\math> and <math>f_{n}^{'}<\math> are nonnegative almost everywhere.  
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Since all the <math>f_{n}</math> are AC, there exists <math>f_{n}^{'}</math> such that <math>f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dt</math> and <math>f_{n}^{'}</math> are nonnegative almost everywhere.  
  
Let <math>g_{n}(x)= \sigma_{1}^{n}f_{n}(x)<\math>S
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Let <math>g_{n}(x)= \sigma_{1}^{n}f_{n}(x)</math>

Revision as of 09:17, 10 July 2008

Since all the $ f_{n} $ are AC, there exists $ f_{n}^{'} $ such that $ f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dt $ and $ f_{n}^{'} $ are nonnegative almost everywhere.

Let $ g_{n}(x)= \sigma_{1}^{n}f_{n}(x) $

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Recent Math PhD now doing a post-doctorate at UC Riverside.

Kuei-Nuan Lin