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you follow the same procedure as above, but now , you just need to use variables instead | you follow the same procedure as above, but now , you just need to use variables instead | ||
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| + | Well, you know that F^-1 is an inverse function of an arbitrary function. Something you need to keep in mind is that F(F^-1(X)) is equal to X because the Function of the inverse function gives you the variable. As a result, what we did in this problem is first we wrote the P(X < x), and because X is an inverse function, we took the function of both sides. As a result, we got (U<= F(x)) | ||
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| + | I hope that helps | ||
Latest revision as of 17:24, 1 November 2008
- Part a
This problems is the same one that we had in class the other day. First you write down the sequence which is ( (1-p)^6*p^4)). Then you take the derivative in term of p and solve for p
- part b
you follow the same procedure as above, but now , you just need to use variables instead
Well, you know that F^-1 is an inverse function of an arbitrary function. Something you need to keep in mind is that F(F^-1(X)) is equal to X because the Function of the inverse function gives you the variable. As a result, what we did in this problem is first we wrote the P(X < x), and because X is an inverse function, we took the function of both sides. As a result, we got (U<= F(x))
I hope that helps
