Line 20: Line 20:
 
----
 
----
 
===Answer 1===
 
===Answer 1===
Write it here
+
To find the CDF given the PDF, we must integrate:
 +
 
 +
<math>F_X(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x \! f(t) \, \mathrm{d}t.</math>
 +
 
 +
However, before we integrate, we can setup our solution by knowing some properties of a cumulative distribution.
 +
Since we know that the cumulative distribution varies from 0 to 1 and that the provided pdf has a probability only in the range from a to b,
 +
we can infer that for any x less than a, the CDF will equal 0 and for any x greater than or equal to b, the CDF will equal 1 giving us this solution so far:
 +
 
 +
<math> F_X (x) = \left\{
 +
\begin{array}{ll}
 +
0, & \text{ if } x < a,\\
 +
?, & \text{ if } a\leq x < b,\\
 +
1, & \text{ if } x \geq b,
 +
\end{array}
 +
\right. </math>
 +
 
 +
To solve for the between a and b, we perform the integral, however we do not need to integrate from negative infinity, we can simply integrate from the lower limit of a:
 +
 
 +
<math>\int_{a}^x \! k \, \mathrm{d}t.</math>
 +
 
 +
Computing the integral we obtain:
 +
 
 +
<math>kt\vert_a^x = k(x-a)</math>
 +
 
 +
Thus, the CDF is:
 +
 
 +
<math> F_X (x) = \left\{
 +
\begin{array}{ll}
 +
0, & \text{ if } x < a,\\
 +
k(x-a), & \text{ if } a\leq x < b,\\
 +
1, & \text{ if } x \geq b,
 +
\end{array}
 +
\right. </math>
 +
 
 
===Answer 2===
 
===Answer 2===
 
Write it here
 
Write it here

Revision as of 06:39, 2 March 2013

Practice Problem: normalizing the probability mass function of a continuous random variable


A random variable X has the following probability density function:

$ f_X (x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} k, & \text{ if } a\leq x \leq b,\\ 0, & \text{ else}, \end{array} \right. $

where k is a constant. Determine the cumulative distribution function of X.


Share your answers below

You will receive feedback from your instructor and TA directly on this page. Other students are welcome to comment/discuss/point out mistakes/ask questions too!


Answer 1

To find the CDF given the PDF, we must integrate:

$ F_X(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x \! f(t) \, \mathrm{d}t. $

However, before we integrate, we can setup our solution by knowing some properties of a cumulative distribution. Since we know that the cumulative distribution varies from 0 to 1 and that the provided pdf has a probability only in the range from a to b, we can infer that for any x less than a, the CDF will equal 0 and for any x greater than or equal to b, the CDF will equal 1 giving us this solution so far:

$ F_X (x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} 0, & \text{ if } x < a,\\ ?, & \text{ if } a\leq x < b,\\ 1, & \text{ if } x \geq b, \end{array} \right. $

To solve for the between a and b, we perform the integral, however we do not need to integrate from negative infinity, we can simply integrate from the lower limit of a:

$ \int_{a}^x \! k \, \mathrm{d}t. $

Computing the integral we obtain:

$ kt\vert_a^x = k(x-a) $

Thus, the CDF is:

$ F_X (x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} 0, & \text{ if } x < a,\\ k(x-a), & \text{ if } a\leq x < b,\\ 1, & \text{ if } x \geq b, \end{array} \right. $

Answer 2

Write it here

Answer 3

Write it here.


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