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Since all the <math>f_{n}</math> are AC, there exists <math>f_{n}^{'}</math> such that <math>f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int{0}{x}S</math>
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Since all the <math>f_{n}</math> are AC, there exists <math>f_{n}^{'}</math> such that <math>f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dtS</math>

Revision as of 09:11, 10 July 2008

Since all the $ f_{n} $ are AC, there exists $ f_{n}^{'} $ such that $ f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dtS $

Alumni Liaison

Correspondence Chess Grandmaster and Purdue Alumni

Prof. Dan Fleetwood