(5 intermediate revisions by 2 users not shown)
Line 1: Line 1:
== Homework 4 collaboration area ==
+
== Homework 4 discussion area ==
 +
 
 +
== Problem 3 ==
 +
 
 +
This is what I come up with.  I am not sure if the following is sharp enough:
 +
 
 +
The successive derivatives of an analytic function at a point <math>a</math> can never satisfy <math>|f^{(n)}(a)|>n!h^n(n)</math>, where <math>h(n)</math> is a function of <math>n</math> such that <math>\limsup_{n\to\infty}h(n)=+\infty</math>.  --[[User:Zhug|Guangwei Zhu]] 15:20, 11 February 2011 (UTC)
  
 
Problem 7 hint:
 
Problem 7 hint:
  
 
<math>e^{\pm f(z)}</math>
 
<math>e^{\pm f(z)}</math>
 +
 +
I came up with a proof by looking at <math>\frac{1}{1+f(z)}</math> and use Liouville's Theorem.  --[[User:Zhug|Guangwei Zhu]] 15:21, 11 February 2011 (UTC)
  
 
Problem 10 hint:
 
Problem 10 hint:
Line 9: Line 17:
 
Parametrize the circular part of the boundary via
 
Parametrize the circular part of the boundary via
  
<math>C_r:\quad z(t)=Re^{it}, 0<t<\pi/4.</math>
+
<math>C_R:\quad z(t)=Re^{it}, 0<t<\pi/4.</math>
  
 
You need to show that
 
You need to show that
Line 19: Line 27:
 
<math>|I_R|\le\int_0^{\pi/4} Re^{-R^2\cos(2t)}\,dt</math>
 
<math>|I_R|\le\int_0^{\pi/4} Re^{-R^2\cos(2t)}\,dt</math>
  
and use freshman calculus ideas to show that this integral tends to zero.  (Don't hit it with the big stick, the Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem.)
+
and use freshman calculus ideas to show that this integral tends to zero.  (Don't hit it with the big stick, the Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem.) Hint:  Draw the graph of cos_2t on the interval and realize that the line connecting the endpoints is under the graph.  Compare the integral with what you would get by replacing cos_2t by the simple linear function underneath it.
  
  

Latest revision as of 10:21, 11 February 2011

Homework 4 discussion area

Problem 3

This is what I come up with. I am not sure if the following is sharp enough:

The successive derivatives of an analytic function at a point $ a $ can never satisfy $ |f^{(n)}(a)|>n!h^n(n) $, where $ h(n) $ is a function of $ n $ such that $ \limsup_{n\to\infty}h(n)=+\infty $. --Guangwei Zhu 15:20, 11 February 2011 (UTC)

Problem 7 hint:

$ e^{\pm f(z)} $

I came up with a proof by looking at $ \frac{1}{1+f(z)} $ and use Liouville's Theorem. --Guangwei Zhu 15:21, 11 February 2011 (UTC)

Problem 10 hint:

Parametrize the circular part of the boundary via

$ C_R:\quad z(t)=Re^{it}, 0<t<\pi/4. $

You need to show that

$ I_R := \int_{C_R}e^{-z^2}\ dz\to 0 $

as R goes to infinity. You won't be able to use the standard estimate to do this. Write out the definition of the integral to find that

$ |I_R|\le\int_0^{\pi/4} Re^{-R^2\cos(2t)}\,dt $

and use freshman calculus ideas to show that this integral tends to zero. (Don't hit it with the big stick, the Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem.) Hint: Draw the graph of cos_2t on the interval and realize that the line connecting the endpoints is under the graph. Compare the integral with what you would get by replacing cos_2t by the simple linear function underneath it.


Back to the MA 530 Rhea start page

To Rhea Course List

Alumni Liaison

Ph.D. 2007, working on developing cool imaging technologies for digital cameras, camera phones, and video surveillance cameras.

Buyue Zhang