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- You guys are life-savers.  I was doing them right, but on 50 and 56 I made stupid simple math errors like saying a half times two was a fourth...Thanks guys.
 
- You guys are life-savers.  I was doing them right, but on 50 and 56 I made stupid simple math errors like saying a half times two was a fourth...Thanks guys.
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--[[User:Klosekam|Klosekam]] 15:26, 8 October 2008 (UTC)Shouldn't the answer to number 56 be pi/2 instead of pi/4 because you have to bring out a 2 before you take the integral meaning that you have to multiply the first part of the answer from above by 2.
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* No, note that after you separate the fracion you should get:
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<math>\int_{0}^{1/2}\frac{2}{1+4x^2}dx-\int_0^{1/2}\frac{8x}{1+4x^2}dx</math>
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Now in the first integral substitute <math>v=2x</math> Therefore <math>dv=2dx</math> and when x=0, v=0 and x=1/2, v=1.
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In the second integral substitute <math>u=1+4x^2</math> therefore <math>du=8xdx</math> and when x=0, u=1 and x=1/2, u=2
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Now after substitution we have:
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<math>\int_0^1\frac{dv}{1+v^2}-\int_0^2\frac{du}{u}</math>
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This eliminates the 2 you might have factored out.  From this it is easy to see that the integrals will involve inverse tangetn and natural logs.[[User:Jhunsber|Jhunsber]]

Latest revision as of 13:23, 8 October 2008

I'm going to give my even answers so far just to compare and see if everyone else is getting the same. Some are a little weird in my opinion. I used a calculator on a few too. -By the way, go here and make sure your preferences are set right so it makes these easier to read.

$ 38: \pi $

$ 48: x - \arctan{x} + c $

$ 50: ln(9) - 4 $

$ 56: \frac{\pi}{4} - \ln{2} $

$ 84 a) : -\cos(\theta)+\frac{1}{3}\cos^3(\theta)+c $

$ 84b) : -\cos(\theta)+\frac{2}{3}\cos^3(\theta)-\frac{1}{5}\cos^5(\theta)+c $

---Gary Brizendine II 14:51, 7 October 2008 (UTC)

I have corrected the answer to numbers 50 and 56.

--John Mason 15:41, 7 October 2008 (UTC)

- You guys are life-savers. I was doing them right, but on 50 and 56 I made stupid simple math errors like saying a half times two was a fourth...Thanks guys.

--Klosekam 15:26, 8 October 2008 (UTC)Shouldn't the answer to number 56 be pi/2 instead of pi/4 because you have to bring out a 2 before you take the integral meaning that you have to multiply the first part of the answer from above by 2.

  • No, note that after you separate the fracion you should get:

$ \int_{0}^{1/2}\frac{2}{1+4x^2}dx-\int_0^{1/2}\frac{8x}{1+4x^2}dx $

Now in the first integral substitute $ v=2x $ Therefore $ dv=2dx $ and when x=0, v=0 and x=1/2, v=1. In the second integral substitute $ u=1+4x^2 $ therefore $ du=8xdx $ and when x=0, u=1 and x=1/2, u=2

Now after substitution we have:

$ \int_0^1\frac{dv}{1+v^2}-\int_0^2\frac{du}{u} $

This eliminates the 2 you might have factored out. From this it is easy to see that the integrals will involve inverse tangetn and natural logs.Jhunsber

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