So where

$ \hat n_{ML} = \text{max}_n ( \binom{n}{1000000} p^{1000000} (1-p)^{n-1000000} ) $


we can express x! as a gamma function but the derivative is kind of a mess and maybe it can get canceled out by the making the derivative = 0? If you were to take the derivative of the the rest of the function you would find

$ {1000000}p^{999999} * -{(n-1000000)} *(1-p)^{n-1000001} $ = 0

to get the ML estimate

Alumni Liaison

Prof. Math. Ohio State and Associate Dean
Outstanding Alumnus Purdue Math 2008

Jeff McNeal